Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 00:05
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Milky Way galaxy might not collide with Andromeda after all - Ars Technica
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Do handsome guys intimidate women or people in general?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Costco makes key moves to protect prices from tariffs - TheStreet
What's (not “whats”) the rule?